I generally play grammar by ear (I never bothered to formally study the rules), so ns don't understand why

"Thank you because that inviting my family and I" and also "Thank you for inviting me and my family" both sound correct while

"Thank you because that inviting I and my family" and also "Thank you because that inviting mine family and me" both sound incorrect.

You are watching: Is me and my family correct grammar

The i vs me dominance doesn't yes, really help; "Thank you for inviting me" sound correct "Thank you for inviting I" is clearly wrong.

Can anyone help with this?


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"Thank you for inviting my family and also me"

Two things are going ~ above here.

1> always put you yourself behind the other human being in a compound. So I, me, etc. Constantly comes behind the other civilization - you, them, they, mine friends, mine family, ... The perform is unlimited -- in English, friend don't counting for as lot as the world you're linking to v a conjunction.

The 2nd problem is yes, really easier. Simply think what you would certainly say if there wasn't other (someone) else connected to it. Would you ever before say, "Thank you for inviting I"? If not, then don't usage 'I' just because they invited someone else too.


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level 2
· 9y

I've been utilizing 'My friend and I' for the longest time, mainly since I to be told the if you take the other person out that the sentence it alters the structure totally since you lose a subject/noun etc. Have the right to someone please clarify this?


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level 1
· 9y
What you really require to recognize is that "I" is for as soon as you are doing the verb and also "me" is for when someone is law the verb come you. Because the inviting is being done to you, it's gotta it is in "me."


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· 9y

Well. What's happening is that the verb calls for something in the objective situation to come after it. ‘My family’ is the same whether it's topic or object, and also if you use ‘my family and I’ as the thing of a verb, because the household bit comes an initial it sort of ‘shields’ the i from sounding as well strange. (It is quiet wrong, in typical written English, however it's the type of point you will hear a lot in speech.) vice versa, if ‘I’ comes instantly after the verb it's evident straight away the it needs to be in the objective form ‘me’.


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level 2
· 9y

This is what threw me off, thanks!


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· 9y

If friend pare the sentence down to that essentials, the rules end up being clearer. As you noted, "thank you because that inviting me" is correct due to the fact that me is an object, no a subject. Thus, "thank you for inviting my family, friends, poodle, pet fish and also me" is additionally correct.


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· 9y · edited 9y

We are talking about the respective indirect case forms that what is "my family and also I" and "I and also my family" in the (unstressed) direct case. "My family" doesn't readjust anyway, however the indirect case kind of "I" is "me".

Now the question is what happens as soon as we put the 2 together and we really want the indirect instance of the conjunction. Languages different in just how they handle this. English as well as the significant European languages placed both components in the indirect case before joining them. For this reason the correct creates are " mine family and me" and also " me and also my family". This is all there is to say indigenous an educated prescriptive point of view.

Nevertheless, so countless native speaker of English agree through your early intuitions, that we cannot insurance claim that " my family and I" is completely wrong. What is more, far-reaching numbers of people have been talking prefer this for centuries. Plainly there is some alternative grammatical sample at work.

I guess there are plenty of ways the phenomenon have the right to potentially it is in explained. To get more information, that is best to replace "my family" through something because that which the direct object type is not the same to the indirect object form. A great example is " him/he and also me/I" / " me/I and him/he", and also with the there room some fascinating phenomena. See http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3469 because that details and for a discussion of feasible explanation.

My explanation 1, i m sorry is comparable to few of those mentioned in the Language log in post, states that her grammatical dominance goes around as follows:

Direct thing or indirect, stressed or unstressed, in English it's every the same (immutable) except for an individual pronouns.

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When you join words v "and", the an outcome is never a an individual pronoun, also when few of the ingredient are an individual pronouns. Therefore, even complex constructions involving a pronoun space immutable. One of two people "my family and also I" is exactly regardless the case, or "my family and also me" is correct regardless that case, or both are correct regardless of case. I.e., if one have the right to be supplied for X in "inviting X", then it deserve to be provided in "X invited" and also vice versa.

Now we have actually decoupled the situation of "I"/"me" from the paper definition in i m sorry "my family and I/me" occurs, yet we need to still choose in between "I" and "me". A standard choice in any type of Indo-European language would be the direct object case, for this reason "I". This is the obvious choice if you have actually a little of officially grammar education. Top top the various other hand, English additionally uses the indirect object case, i.e. "me", together a stressed different of the direct object case. (E.g. In titles. Basically in the same cases where French offers "moi" instead of "je".) for this reason that's additionally a perfectly an excellent choice. In general, "me" is more idiomatic but is rejected by many pedants who just deny that English has stressed variants that pronouns and prescribe: "Who is that? - I!"

My explanation also tells united state why numerous native speakers, especially children, to speak things favor "Me and my brothers went fishing."

My alternate explanation claims that for some speakers, once a complex phrase is in the indirect case, just the an initial constituent gets marked as indirect case and the rest remains in direct case. This predicts "invite him and she" and also "invite her and also he" together 'correct'. If any native speaker really feels that these are correct (I doubt it), please speak up!

(This different explanation is not completely insane. E.g. In German, as soon as you put a wire of adjective in prior of a noun that is in the dative case, then only the very first adjective -- or the post preceding the -- is in the dative case, and the others space in the nominative case. That's similar and also weirder.)